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Missing weights were imputed with the last recorded value carried forward for up to 7 days 20 mg cialis jelly sale erectile dysfunction pumps review. Scavenged samples were defined as samples obtained 66 without obtaining additional blood from the infant effective cialis jelly 20mg erectile dysfunction review. Blood draw samples were defined as samples obtained with collection of extra blood from the infant buy cheap cialis jelly 20 mg online royal jelly impotence. The duration of metronidazole infusion was performed according to site routine clinical care buy 20mg cialis jelly free shipping doctor for erectile dysfunction philippines. Samples were refrigerated or placed on ice immediately after collection and then centrifuged at 1500 g and o 4 C for 10 minutes. Samples from all sites were shipped on dry ice to Duke University Medical Center where they were stored at -70° C prior to analysis. The first-order conditional estimation method with interaction was used for all model runs. Once covariates were identified during the model- 68 building process, covariate testing was performed via standard forward addition backward elimination methods. A forward inclusion with backwards elimination approach was used during the multivariable step, and a reduction of 6. Model evaluation Models were evaluated based on successful minimization, goodness-of-fit plots, precision of parameter estimates, bootstrap procedures, and visual predictive check. For the visual predictive check, the final model was used to generate 1000 Monte Carlo simulation replicates of metronidazole exposure, and simulated results were compared with those observed in the study. The number of observed concentrations outside the 90% prediction interval for each time point was quantified. Metronidazole trough concentrations at steady state were predicted for each subject using individual empirical Bayesian estimates from the final model and dosing prescribed in the study per routine medical care. When a dosing range was recommended, the highest end of the range was chosen for the simulations. One subject was excluded from the analysis because sampling was obtained during drug infusion and no other samples were collected. The exclusion of these subjects and samples resulted in 32 subjects from 5 sites with 116 concentrations used in the modeling process. Because few samples were obtained within the first few hours post dose, inter- compartmental clearance was not estimated and a 2-compartment model did not provide a better fit to the data. The visual predictive check revealed a good fit between observed and predicted metronidazole concentrations (Fig. Only 7% (8/116) of observed concentrations were outside of the 90% prediction interval. Without appropriate studies specifically designed for preterm infants, clinicians are often forced to prescribe products “off-label,” exposing patients to potential adverse drug effects or less-than-optimal drug exposure without dosing 14,15 evidence. These data suggest that safety should not be different between the new dosing regimen and current clinical practice, but further prospective studies are warranted to verify this finding. This finding may be due to higher doses (more frequent administration) prescribed per routine medical care when compared with published regimens and suggests that prescribing 5,6 practices in the neonatal intensive care unit are not driven by these sources. In adults, metronidazole undergoes extensive hepatic metabolism with subsequent 16 17 renal elimination ; the elimination half-life is 8 hours, 20% is protein-bound, and the 17 apparent V ranges between 0. The bias introduced by scavenged sampling was quantified in this study and resulted in an underestimation of metronidazole concentrations by ~30%. To more precisely estimate the amount of bias introduced by scavenged samples, a higher number of timed samples should be obtained. This finding could be due to higher documentation errors associated with sampling or dosing times extracted from the medical record after a scavenged sample was collected. Future efforts evaluating this methodology should consider the physicochemical properties of the drug (i. Individualised dosing of amikacin in neonates: a pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic analysis. Population pharmacokinetics of meropenem in plasma and cerebrospinal fluid of infants with suspected or complicated intra-abdominal infections. Development of a liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry assay of six antimicrobials in plasma for pharmacokinetic studies in premature infants. Methods for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing of Anaerobic Bacteria; Approved Standard. Pediatric drug labeling: improving the safety and efficacy of pediatric therapies. Developmental pharmacokinetics of morphine and its metabolites in neonates, infants and young children. Metronidazole population pharmacokinetics in preterm neonates using dried blood-spot sampling. Simultaneous quantification of amoxycillin and metronidazole in plasma using high-performance liquid chromatography with photodiode array detection. Clinical data by gestational age group Gestational age at birth Characteristic <26 weeks 26–29 weeks 30–32 weeks N 13 14 5 Gestational age, weeks 24 (22, 25) 28 (26, 29) 31 (30, 32) Postnatal age, days 29 (2, 71) 32 (2, 78) 29 (10, 73) Postmenstrual age, weeks 32 (24, 39) 32 (28, 43) 36 (32, 40) Weight, g 1410 (678, 2537) 1510 (850, 3611) 1658 (1230, 3850) Female sex 6 (46) 9 (64) 2 (40) White race 4 (31) 10 (71) 2 (40) Hispanic 1 (8) 2 (14) 0 (0) Serum creatinine (mg/dL) 0. Solid and dashed black lines represent observed and predicted median concentrations, respectively. Weight-normalized metronidazole clearance versus postmenstrual age (A) and serum creatinine (B). Shaded gray area represents the 90% prediction interval around the loading dose simulations. However, this approach underestimates the complicated physiology of preterm infants, which differs greatly from other populations. Preterm infants have a larger extracellular fluid volume, immature renal and hepatic function, underdevelopment of metabolic enzymatic systems, and a unique blood-brain barrier—all of 1 which can substantially alter drug disposition. Preparation of standards Individual clear stock solutions of piperacillin and tazobactam were prepared at a concentration of 15 mg/mL. This master stock standard was used to prepare 7 intermediate composite stock solutions: piperacillin (1,500,000, 750,000, 300,000, 150,000, 30,000, 15,000, and 3,000 ng/mL) and tazobactam (750,000, 300,000, 150,000, 30,000, 15,000, 3,000, and 1,500 ng/mL). Whole blood working calibration solutions at 150,000, 75,000, 30,000, 15,000, 3,000, 1,500, and 300 ng/mL for piperacillin and 75,000, 30,000, 15,000, 3,000, 1,500, 300, and 150 ng/mL for tazobactam were prepared by diluting the intermediate solutions in human drug- free fresh whole blood in a ratio of 1:9. Samples and pre-treatment This method was used to measure antimicrobial concentrations in clinical samples collected from preterm infants. Sample collection (~1 drop onto card) occurred under an investigational protocol approved by the institutional review board at participating sites and after informed consent was obtained from caregivers of study participants. Samples were obtained at the same time as plasma samples and could be obtained after single or multiple dosing. Criteria for a non-valid samples included appearance of multiple drops of blood per each spot on the card, asymmetry of spot, and cross-contamination between spots on the same card. Hematocrit (Hct) values were recorded for each participant if collected during routine medical care. The solutions were gently vortex-mixed for 10 minutes and o centrifuged at 15,600 g at 4 C for 5 minutes. Dicloxicillin was used as internal standard for both positive and negative analyses. The chromatographic separation of analytes was performed with gradient elution of increasing mobile phase B (0% hold until 0.

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Such results highlight the importance of finding a suitable medication regimen for consumers that effectively treats symptoms and simultaneously has a tolerable side effect profile (Resnick et al order cialis jelly 20 mg overnight delivery erectile dysfunction blood flow. Despite not reflecting a unique code or sub-code in the analysis buy generic cialis jelly 20mg on-line erectile dysfunction treatment karachi, as relevant extracts were divided amongst other codes generic cialis jelly 20 mg otc erectile dysfunction medicine in uae, interviewees frequently indicated that finding the right medication or combination of medications and the appropriate dosage/s is often a long process cheap cialis jelly 20mg without prescription erectile dysfunction doctors kansas city, consistent with previous research (Carder et al. This process was described as challenging adherence as interviewees reported disillusionment and confusion when medications failed to work and/or created significant side effects. Although covered somewhat in the service-related factors category, and also consistent with previous research (Carder et al. The experimentation period referred to may be difficult to overcome, as prescribers cannot predict how a consumer will respond to a medication. As was made apparent in the 285 service-related factors category, however, prescribers could modify their practice in order to create more equality in the therapeutic alliance which might enable consumers to feel as though they have more control over their treatment. The most prominent service-related factor to emerge from the data was the therapeutic alliance. Whilst this factor has already been established as a strong predictor of adherence in the literature (i. Specifically, interviewees indicated that the power relations within the therapeutic alliance were important and generally associated collaboration with enhanced adherence and authoritarianism with non-adherence; however, exceptions existed. For example, some interviewees attributed their adherence to prescribers’ threats of punishment for non-adherence. Interviewees also highlighted the importance of prescribers demonstrating genuine interest in the consumer experience and their backgrounds. Specifically, interviewees suggested that prescribers should ask more in-depth questions and should demonstrate knowledge of consumers’ histories. The latter was reportedly contraindicated by rotating staff systems at medication clinics, which mean that consumers often see multiple different prescribers, compromising their abilities to establish meaningful relationships with prescribers. Interview data 286 overwhelmingly suggested that tailoring the medication schedule to consumers’ unique situations is the most important element of the therapeutic alliance and exerts a significant influence on adherence. Tailoring to consumers’ symptom fluctuations and their experiences of medication effects was deemed important, in addition to tailoring to consumers’ lifestyles, personalities and cognitive abilities. It could be argued that in order for prescribers to be able to tailor treatment effectively to individual consumers, they need to act collaboratively, require knowledge of the consumer, need to ask appropriate questions to guide the tailoring process and, ideally, there would be some continuity of the therapeutic alliance to facilitate in-depth understanding of the consumer, their illness and their responsiveness to medication. Some interviewees also admitted to non-adherence to express resistance to prescribers or to elicit some attention from health professionals who failed to act on concerns raised by consumers. This finding highlights the importance of a positive therapeutic alliance in influencing adherence, as the relationship dynamic is constructed as the primary reason for non-adherence, outweighing other important medication- related factors or consumer-related factors. Although not a major code to emerge, several interviewees indicated that specialised services provided by community centres for people with mental illnesses, can positively influence adherence. This finding is consistent with my impressions of community centres prior to and during data collection. Although not reflected in the analysis, interviewees appraised community centres positively in general (not just in relation to adherence) as they reportedly provide a social outlet for consumers, information and a sense of purpose for some. Moreover, interviewees commonly advised that peer workers (who are frequently employed by 287 community centres) could have a greater role in assisting consumers with adherence. Peer workers were frequently positioned as more relatable and credible than other health professionals, who lacked direct experience of having a mental illness and taking antipsychotic medication. The role of peer workers in promoting medication adherence has not previously been explored extensively (if at all) and, thus, may represent an avenue for future research. Additionally, peer workers involved in the present study reported that their experiences in this role were positive and empowering, consistent with recovery literature, which suggests that participation in consumer-run programs may be instrumental in motivating a person to sustain treatment and rehabilitation (Liberman & Kopelowicz, 2005). Evaluations of case managers, by contrast, were mixed, with some interviewees indicating that they were helpful whereas others considered this service relatively hands-off and ineffectual. Summarising the service-related code reveals several limitations to the current services available for consumers in metropolitan Adelaide (and potentially beyond). Despite the therapeutic alliance having been established consistently as a strong predictor of adherence, there remain rotating systems of psychiatrist in medication clinics. Additionally, whilst there has been an ideological shift in conceptualisations of the relationship between health professionals and consumers towards greater equality and enhanced agency and control of the consumer, this does not appear to reflect practice, in the treatment of schizophrenia, at least. Too frequently, interviewees reported power imbalances in favour of the prescriber in therapeutic alliances. Tailoring to consumers’ unique circumstances often does not take place and there appears to be a concerning lack of interest in the consumer perspective, reflected through a lack of knowledge of consumers’ histories and repetitive, 288 concrete questioning. These results challenge how “therapeutic” the relationship between the prescriber and the consumer actually is, especially in the context of non-adherence to express resistance, whereby interviewees reported taking extreme measures such as over-dosing or becoming non- adherent to induce a psychotic episode in order to elicit responses from prescribers or the healthcare system. Experiences with case managers were mixed and, notably, few interviewees actually had case managers. One interviewee positioned her case manager as similar to a consumer advocate, who facilitated communication between herself and her prescriber, highlighting how case managers could have pivotal roles in assisting with adherence and improving relationships between prescribers and consumers. Positively, there was support for the increased role of peer workers in services to assist with adherence, who were consistently positioned as credible and relatable, highlighting a potential clinical implication of the present research. As can be seen, there is significant overlap and interaction between the categories outlined. Whilst they have been divided up for presentation purposes, they should be considered collectively, particularly when interventions and clinical implications are being considered. A possible reason for the ineffectiveness of previous interventions could be that they have focused on only one or a few factors or categories and, thus, failed to address other important aspects of medication taking experiences. Several interventions have been proposed to address adherence, 289 however, a review of the literature indicates that they have had limited effectiveness, with only approximately one third of interventions leading to significant improvements in adherence (Zygmunt, Olfson, Boyer & Mechanic, 2002). Interventions that have most commonly been studied include family therapy, psychoeducation, behavioural and cognitive therapies. Neither family therapy nor psychoeducation have consistently been associated with improvements in adherence, unless combined with other therapies/intervention modalities (Eckman & Liberman, 1990; Fenton et al. When psychoeducation has been shown to moderately improve adherence, the effect has tended to be modest and not sustained over time (Lowe, Raynor, Courtney, Purvis & Teale, 1995). Behavioural interventions have been shown to be comparatively more effective at improving adherence than other modalities (Boczkowski, Zeichner & DeSanto 1985; Falloon, 1984; Zygmunt et al. Cognitive and motivational interviewing interventions have also been studied, to a lesser extent than other interventions, with mixed results (Gray et al. In the present study, interview data overwhelmingly contraindicated the utility of a generalised, “one size fits all”, pre-determined intervention to address adherence amongst consumers. This finding could explain why previous intervention studies have reported only limited success in terms of improving adherence. Interviewees in the present study justified their 290 opposition to such interventions through constructions of adherence as a personal issue, influenced largely by consumers’ unique experiences. This is consistent with the findings of other qualitative research (Carrick et al. Adherence was frequently described as a process which involves experiential learning, and is thus, mediated by a variety of factors at different stages of the illness, which differ for individual consumers. Adherence could, thus, be seen to encompass a complex interaction of influences, which may change over time. Furthermore, adherence decisions were frequently framed as rational choices based on the information and resources available to consumers.

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There is no penalty for guessing on certification know what you can and cannot bring with you. Always answer to the best of your ability your travel arrangements and familiarize yourself with the first time. Choose Eat properly and, if possible, engage in some light physical one of the longest answers. Dress comfortably with layered clothing that you may re- Do not overlook words such as not, never, always, most, move, if the examination room is too warm. Statements that contain unquali- you bring two forms of signed identification including fied absolutes (always, never) are usually incorrect. Do not panic if you do them must match the name on your letter of admission not know an answer. Continue the test and do not allow to the exam that you should also have with you. Do Work steadily and do not spend too much time on not take notes or books with you. Try pared prior to the examination day, you will not succeed to pace yourself so that sufficient time remains after com- by trying to cram last-minute facts. Do not ious before or during the exam, close your eyes and change your original answer unless you are certain that you breathe deeply for a few seconds. All of these options, depending on the patient volume of packed cells, will increase. A A mature erythrocyte is approximately 7–8 μm in procedures/Microscopic morphology/Differential/2 diameter. Variation in red cell size observed on the indicates increased central pallor in erythrocytes, and peripheral smear is described as: poikilocytosis denotes variation in red cell shape. A Variation in shape of the erythrocytes on a peripheral Hematology/Apply knowledge of fundamental blood smear is poikilocytosis. What term describes the change in shape of erythrocytes seen on a Wright’s-stained peripheral blood smear? It expresses the all 9-mm squares of a Neubauer-ruled ratio of the weight of Hgb to the volume of hemacytometer. A The formula used for calculating manual cell counts using a hemacytometer is: Number of cells counted 8. When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is × dilution factor × depth factor (10) divided by the stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a: area. If the laboratory is using manual factor × depth factor (10), divided by the area. In this techniques, which of the following tests will most example, 336 × 200 × 10 = 672,000 ÷ 0. A 1:200 dilution of a patient’s sample was phagocytic and do not release lysozyme. If a patient has a reticulocyte count of 7% and an Answers to Questions 12–17 Hct of 20%, what is the corrected reticulocyte count? Hematology/Apply principles of basic laboratory procedures/Calculate/Reticulocytes/2 13. A Osmotic fragility is decreased when numerous sickle cells and target cells are present and is increased in 13. Hemolytic disease of the newborn increased in the presence of spherocytes, whereas D. Acquired hemolytic anemia this test is decreased when sickle cells, target cells, Hematology/Apply principles of basic laboratory and other poikilocytes are present. Red cells would be stained too pink Leukocytes also show poor nuclear detail when B. B Heinz bodies are irregular, refractile, purple inclusions that are not visible with Wright’s stain but show up Hematology/Evaluate laboratory data to recognize with supravital staining. The other three inclusions problems/Microscopic morphology/Stains/2 can be detected with Wright’s stain. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate enumerated in both the squares. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube interval (normal range); hence, the erythrocytes B. Te Coulter principle for counting of cells is based methylene blue is used to identify the reticulocytes. Two electrodes suspended in cells do isotonic solutions are separated by a glass tube B. A vacuum is applied, and as a of cells cell passes through the aperture it impedes the flow C. Cells conduct electricity better than saline does of current and generates a voltage pulse. C The automated hematology analyzers enumerate Hematology/Apply principles of basic laboratory all nucleated cells. Given the following values, which set of red blood Answers to Questions 24–29 cell indices suggests spherocytosis? Which of the following statistical terms reflects is most influenced by reproducibility or precision. Which of the following is considered a normal β–chains and the binding of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate hemoglobin? Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin Hgb C do not change the affinity of oxygen for dissociation curve to the right? B Lymphocytes constitute the majority of the nucleated Hematology/Correlate laboratory data with other cells seen. What is the major type of leukocyte seen in lymphocyte production is less affected. Eosinophil Hematology/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/ Leukocytes/Aplastic anemia/1 29.

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Perform plasmapheresis to remove anti-E from cross into the central nervous system discount cialis jelly 20mg overnight delivery erectile dysfunction doctors albany ny, causing brain the mother damage to the infant 20mg cialis jelly with amex erectile dysfunction treatment protocol. Perform an intrauterine transfusion using mother and provides a temporary solution to the E-negative cells problem until the fetus is mature enough to be Blood bank/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/ delivered generic cialis jelly 20mg with visa erectile dysfunction doctors in sri lanka. The procedure may need to be performed Hemolytic disease of the newborn/3 several times discount 20mg cialis jelly with amex erectile dysfunction mental treatment, depending upon how quickly and how 14. Administration of RhIg when the mother’s serum contains an would not contribute to solving this problem caused alloantibody? Crossmatch and antibody screen performed before week 20, and would be considered B. A crossmatch is necessary as long procedures/Hemolytic disease of the newborn/ as maternal antibody persists in the infant’s blood. O negative only Blood bank/Select course of action/Hemolytic disease of the newborn/Hemotherapy/2 4. Why do Rh-negative women tend to have a Answers to Questions 17–19 positive antibody screen compared to Rh-positive women of childbearing age? It is known as a single entity Blood bank/Apply knowledge of biological principles/ as opposed to separate antibodies. Anti-D would Hemolytic disease of the newborn/3 not be the cause because this is the first pregnancy. Anti-D from the mother coating the infant red physician can communicate with the pathologist cells once he or she receives this information from the B. Maternal anti-A, B coating the infant cells Blood bank/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/ Hemolytic disease of the newborn/3 19. Te nurse then requests to take 50 mcg from the 300 mcg syringe to satisfy the physician’s orders. Instruct the nurse that the blood bank does not stock minidoses of RhIg and manipulating the full dose will compromise the purity of the product D. Instruct the nurse that the blood bank does not stock minidoses of RhIg, and relay this information to the patient’s physician Blood bank/Select course of action/Hemolytic disease of the newborn/RhIg/3 4. Pools of up to 16 donors are tested; if pool is Blood bank/Apply knowledge of standard operating reactive, individual samples are screened procedures/Processing/1 D. All donors are screened individually; if samples are reactive, blood is discarded Answers to Questions 1–5 Blood bank/Standard operating procedures/Processing/3 1. Told to come back in 6 months Blood bank/Select best course of action/Processing/3 6. B The recipient’s physician should be notified by the positive, then the unit may be used medical director to ascertain the current health C. Cellular components may be prepared but must what treatment, if any, the recipient should receive. However, testing may be done on procedures/Processing/2 units intended for transfusion to low birth weight 8. Red blood cells made from the used for intrauterine transfusion; units intended whole blood were transfused to a recipient of a for immunocompromised patients who are community hospital in June with no apparent seronegative; prospective transplant recipients who complications. Te blood supplier notified the are seronegative; or transplant recipients who have medical director of the hospital that the donor received a seronegative organ. Repeat the reverse grouping using A1 cells that inconclusive are negative for M antigen D. Repeat the reverse grouping using A1 cells that nonsecretor are positive for M antigen Blood bank/Evaluate laboratory data to make D. A The blood typing result demonstrates A antigen on Mixed field 0 1+ 4+ the red cells and anti-B in the serum. Type patient cells with anti-A1 lectin and type agglutination when A1 cells were added. Retype patient cells; type with anti-H and H antigen; therefore, the H antigen in the saliva anti-A,B; use screen cells or A2 cells on patient would be bound by anti-H reagent. No agglutination serum; run patient autocontrol would occur when the O cells are added. A positive reaction with anti-A,B would help to differentiate an A subgroup from group O. If A2 cells are not agglutinated by patient serum, the result would indicate the presence of anti-A1. If the patient’s serum agglutinates A2 cells, then an alloantibody or autoantibody should be considered. B The scenario showed an antibody in the patient serum directed toward the M antigen, and the M antigen happened to be on the A1 cells in reverse grouping. An Rh phenotyping shows the following results: department of a community hospital complaining Anti-D Anti-C Anti-E Anti-c Anti-e of dizziness and fatigue. History included no 4+ 2+ 0 0 3+ transfusions and a positive rheumatoid factor 1 year ago. Fearing the sample would clog the ProVue, testing was performed Blood bank/Apply knowledge of fundamental using the tube method. An obstetric patient, 34 weeks pregnant, shows Anti-A Anti-B Anti-D Rh Control A1 cells B cells a positive antibody screen at the indirect 0 0 4+ 2+ 4+ 4+ antiglobulin phase of testing. She has with saline, and testing was repeated giving the no prior history of transfusion. What is the most following results: likely explanation for the positive antibody screen? She has developed an antibody to fetal red cells Anti-A Anti-B Anti-D Rh Control A1 cells B cells B. She received an antenatal dose of RhIg Crossmatch testing using two O-positive donor D. Run the crossmatch using the Gel system plasma proteins causing a positive result with the D. Perform a saline replacement technique Blood bank/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/Rh to rectify the incompatible crossmatches at discrepancy/3 immediate spin. Run a saline control in forward grouping pregnant, she probably has not formed any atypical D. Although technical error cannot be ruled out, it is far less likely than RhIg administration. What technique(s) may be helpful to anti-Jka (reaction enhanced) and anti-Fya (destroyed). Lowering the pH and increasing the incubation help to reveal an additional antibody or antibodies. Because the detection of Kidd more clinically significant antibodies may be antibodies is subject to dosage effect, selection of revealed? Adsorption with homozygous cells would also react more strongly in the presence of D. However, because this patient was recently anti-Jka, but the antibody identification panel does transfused, the variation in reaction strength may be not fit this pattern conclusively. Although following would not be effective in determining if autoadsorption would remove anti-I, this procedure the specificity is anti-Jka?

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Preservative tablets should be avoided because random urine specimens they may cause chemical interference with some B order cialis jelly 20mg amex impotence at 30 years old. Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed dry reagent strip and turbidimetric protein tests cialis jelly 20 mg for sale cough syrup causes erectile dysfunction. Samples may be stored at room temperature for occur within 30 minutes of collection discount 20 mg cialis jelly with amex impotence group. C Homogentisic acid causes dark brown or error/Specimen collection and handling/2 black-colored urine generic cialis jelly 20 mg fast delivery erectile dysfunction ultrasound. D Myoglobin causes a positive test for blood but does not cause urine to fluoresce. Which of the following substances will cause urine and coproporphyrin produce red or orange-red to produce red fluorescence when examined with fluorescence. Body fluids/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/ However, uroporphyrin levels are not sufficiently Urine porphyrins/2 elevated to cause red pigmentation of the urine. Which of the following conditions is associated There is sufficient coproporphyrin to cause a positive with normal urine color but produces red test for fluorescence. Acute intermittent porphyria fluorescence when urine is examined with an produces increased urinary delta-aminolevulinic acid ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp? All types are associated with anemia defect in heme synthesis or may be acquired as a D. Serum, urine, and fecal tests may be needed for result of lead poisoning, liver failure, or drug toxicity. They are divided Body fluids/Apply principles of special procedures/ clinically into three groups: neuropsychiatric, Porphyrins/2 cutaneous, or mixed. Acute intermittent porphyria general, neurological porphyrias are associated with C. Porphyria cutanea tarda acid, while cutaneous porphyrias are associated with Body fluids/Apply knowledge disease states/Porphyria/2 increased urinary porphyrins. Ion exchange chromatography–Ehrlich’s reaction cutanea tarda results from a deficiency of D. The disease usually caused by: appears in middle-aged adults, the majority of whom A. D Excretion of melanin in malignant melanoma and homogentisic acid in alkaptonuria cause the urine to turn black on standing. B Porphyria cutanea tarda and erythropoietic porphyria produce sufficient uroporphyrins to cause dark red urine. Which of the following tests is affected least by Answers to Questions 14–18 standing or improperly stored urine? Bilirubin unconjugated bilirubin or oxidized to biliverdin, resulting in a false-negative dry reagent strip test. Body fluids/Apply knowledge to identify sources of Glucose can be consumed by glycolysis or oxidation error/Urine/Specimen collection and handling/2 by cells. C The D-xylose absorption test is used to distinguish D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient? D-xylose is absorbed without the boric acid aid of pancreatic enzymes, and is not metabolized C. Random urine preserved with formalin by a plasma level < 25 mg/dL and urine excretion Body fluids/Apply principles of basic laboratory of < 4g/5hours) points to malabsorption syndrome. Urine in the bladder is voided and discarded at must be emptied of urine at the start of the test the start of the test and discarded. At 24 hours, any urine in the bladder is voided conclusion of the test and the urine added to the and added to the collection collection. Associated with diabetes mellitus causes retention of H O within the tubule, 2 Body fluids/Correlate clinical and laboratory resulting in dehydration and polyuria rather data/Urine volume/2 than oliguria. Glucose Body fluids/Evaluate laboratory data to determine possible inconsistent results/Specific gravity/2 6. Water and salt are retained, disease states/Specific gravity/2 and the urine:plasma osmolar ratio (U:P) exceeds 2:1. Refractometry should be performed before the Cells and undissolved solutes refract light and will urine is centrifuged cause a falsely high specific gravity reading by Body fluids/Apply knowledge to identify sources of refractometry if urine is not centrifuged. Colorimetric error/Specific gravity/2 specific gravity tests are less sensitive to nonionized compounds such as urea and glucose, and are 22. Ionic strength alters the pKa of a polyelectrolyte gravity readings are determined by a pH change B. Sodium and other cations are chelated by a on the test pad and are approximately 0. Ionized solutes catalyze oxidation of an azo dye in proportion to the ionic strength of urine. This Body fluids/Apply principles of basic laboratory causes the pH indicator, bromthymol blue, to react procedures/Specific gravity/1 as if it were in a more acidic solution. Contamination should be suspected if urine pH Extended storage may result in loss of volatile acids, is less than 4. Body fluids/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/ Urine pH/2 334 Chapter 6 | Urinalysis and Body Fluids 24. Variable, depending upon diet ions are not secreted when bicarbonate ions are not reabsorbed. When Body fluids/Apply knowledge of fundamental biological fluid intake is excessive, up to 2. D Urine pH is determined by diet, acid–base balance, characteristics/Urine/1 water balance, and renal function. A patient with partially compensated respiratory compensated respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys alkalosis would have a urine pH of: reabsorb less bicarbonate, which results in lower net A. B In addition to highly buffered alkaline urine, a Body fluids/Correlate clinical and laboratory data/ false-positive dry reagent test may be caused by Urine pH/2 quaternary ammonium compounds, which increase 28. Because the dry reagent strip tests are false-positive dry reagent strip test for urinary insensitive to globulins, a false negative is likely in protein? Highly buffered alkaline urine strip protein tests but is common for turbidimetric C. B Turbidimetric assays are used to test urine suspected error/Urinary protein/2 of giving a false-positive dry reagent strip test for albumin because the urine is highly alkaline (pH ≥ 8. Highly buffered alkaline urine of globulins because dry reagent strip tests are far less B. Iodinated dyes, penicillin, salicylate, and Body fluids/Apply knowledge to identify sources of tolbutamide may result in false positives. Trace error/Urinary protein/2 turbidity is difficult to determine when urine is cloudy due to bacteriuria, mucus, or crystals.